What could he have meant?

Note, weeks ago I shared 

this on Google+. I don't 

believe it was seen publicly.

When I hear prayer end with “In Jesus’ name we pray,” I wonder what do we think that phrase adds? What do we expect? What did Jesus mean by, “You may ask me for anything in my name, and I will do it”? (John 14:14)

A clearer picture of why I raise this point will come by reading all of John 14:1- 20.

Back then “in my name” had little of our 21st Century context. It wasn’t a tag-line or an invocation of the power of the actual name, Jesus. He was neither referring to himself, nor was he offering a code phrase. He was invoking EVERYTHING he taught and EVERYTHING he commanded. That was the 1st Century (and earlier) context of “the name” of a rabbi.

Verse 15 provides the context: “If you love me, keep my commands.” Ancient manuscripts weren’t divided as we know The Bible today. Modern versions place this verse with the promise of asking God to send “another advocate.” It would be interesting to see how this was divided in John’s first manuscript. I’d bet that v. 15 would be found connected directly with v. 14; or at best as a stand-alone. It would be clear that Jesus was commanding a spirit and an understanding of prayer. He was saying, “I have taught you what to ask for and how to ask. When you follow that, your petition will be heard and granted.”

It is simple: If I pray “in Jesus’ name,” will I ask anything Jesus would not ask? Could I pray for personal wealth “in Jesus’ name”? Could I pray for the death of an enemy “in Jesus’ name”? Can I pray to God for peace “in Jesus’ name” with a gun in my hands?

NO!